Ephesians 1 (verses 1 through 14)
The first chapter of this epistle provides a glorious declaration of God's plan, purpose and method of salvation.
Summary of 1-5: The letter is written to the faithful (Ephesians 1:1) believers in Ephesus who were chosen before the foundation of the world (Ephesians 1:4) to be holy and without blame (Ephesians 1:4) and were predestinated to be adopted (Ephesians 1:5) according to God's will (Ephesians 1:5).
1 PAUL, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, To the saints who are in Ephesus, and faithful in Christ Jesus: 2 that I have great sorrow and continual grief in my heart. 3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ,
This letter is not addressed to all who are in Ephesus, but to those who are "saints" and to those who are "faithful." There were undoubtedly those in Ephesus who were not believers, some who might become believers and others who will never repent. Paul knew the situation in Ephesus well. He had spent 3 years in Ephesus (Acts 20:26-31) laboring and weeping among them, detecting that there were some within who would rise up and try to lead others astray. Now, at this later date, he is writing to the faithful saints that have persevered.
4 just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love, 5 having predestined us to adoption as sons by Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the good pleasure of His will,
Verse 4 declares that God chose or elected the faithful saints before the foundation of the world. This is a profound statement. But it also raises profound questions: Why did He choose some and not others? Is His selection or rejection based upon any particular criteria? Or did He choose for no reason at all? Honestly, it is a shame we even have to ask this latter question, as though God would choose for no reason at all. Sadly, however, that is what many today suggest or even teach. However, God's purposes in election are clearly and expressly set forth in this first chapter. Note: The declaration that God chose before the foundation of the world is not intended to signify that there was no purpose for His selection or that He intends to hide the criteria for His selection. Rather, the criteria for His selection are revealed as the chapter progresses.
In order to understand what is stated in verse 4, we should first consider what other works God performed before the foundation of the world: (1) Matthew 25:34 tells us that the Kingdom of God was prepared for us from the foundation of the world. (2) 1 Peter 1:20 explains that Jesus was foreordained before the foundation of the world. (3) Revelation 13:8 reveals that Jesus was slain from the foundation of the world. What these statements collectively tell us is that God had a complete plan before He created. And verse 5 expresses that this complete plan involves our adoption according to His good pleasure and His will.
So what is His will and what brings Him the good pleasure which is the basis of this plan and selection? Should we quickly conclude that it must have nothing to do with what He knows of who we would be, how we would live, or how we would respond to the gift of His son? Should we be surprised to discover that whom He chooses has everything to do with how we respond to Jesus? Virtually all of Christianity embraces the view that God knows the future. Yet, Calvinism teaches that when God decides who to select for salvation, He ignores His foreknowledge and whatever His reasons may be for selecting some and not others, the one thing they claim to know for sure is that it is not based upon His foreknowledge of our response to Jesus. (Click here for a more detailed discussion of the definition of "foreknowledge.") Of course, such a view conflicts both with scripture and with the concept of an all-knowing God. (For those whose minds now wander to Jacob and Esau as discussed in Romans 9, I encourage you to click here to read our discussion of Romans 9.)
Consider the text of Revelation 13:8 which states that Jesus was slain from the foundation of the world. Was Jesus slain simply because it was the good pleasure of the Father to experience the crucificion of His Son? Such a statement is absurd when separated from the foreknowledge of an all-knowing God who knew before the foundation of the world that Satan would tempt, Adam and Eve would sin, and all who came after them would be plagued with a sin nature rendering them incapable of living in the presence of God. Indeed it was because of this foreknowledge, that Jesus was ordained to shed His bled upon the cross to atone for our sins. Jesus was slain before the foundation of the world because God knew, from the foundation of the world, that a plan was needed and Jesus was and is that plan of salvation for all those who will believe. It is not the death of Jesus, separate from God's foreknowledge, which brings God good pleasure; rather, it is that God knows the death of Jesus accomplishes His purpose of saving those who believe from their sins that they might forever be together with Him. This is why Jesus "for the joy that was set before Him endured the cross" (Hebrews 12:2b). He had foreknowledge that salvation would be birthed out of His sacrfice. As stated in Acts 2:23: "Him, being delivered by the determined purpose and foreknowledge of God, you have taken by lawless hands, have crucified, and put to death." God's entire perfect and glorious plan of salvation, determined before the creation of the world, was premised upon His perfect foreknowledge of all that will transpire. Yet, we need to proceed further through this Chapter to fully grasp the criteria for God's selection of some and rejection of others. The criteria is no longer a mystery.
But, first we need to further examine verse 5 which clearly reveals that God chose for His good pleasure. So, how would His choice bring Him pleasure? Now Calvinism argues that we are all equally guilty, and none would respond, except that He blessed some by choosing them, for some hidden reason, and He compels them to respond with His irresistible grace. It is perplexing why any would interpret the scriptures in this manner. If such were true, we should ask 2 questions:
1. Why didn't God choose all and grant to all this irresistible grace? Or did He instead not want to choose all because He also wanted the pleasure of creating some for damnation, creating them with no capacity to respond? Honestly, that is a miserable accusation against God, to argue that God did not choose all for the reason that He wanted to create some solely to damn them. However, if you do not recognize this argument, consider that it is exactly what Calvin taught, that most of humanity was created for no purpose other than to be consumed in eternal fire (Calvin's Institutes of the Christian Religion, Book 3, Chapter 23).
2. Why did God not just birth those He chose, but instead choose to birth others whom He had no desire to choose? Rather, as Calvin states "Those, therefore, whom God passes by, he reprobates, and that for no other cause than he is pleased to exclude them from the inheritance which he predestines to his children." (Calvin's Institutes of the Christian Religion, Book 3, Chapter 23, 1). And how do we even begin to reconcile this lack of desire with the following:
"Do I have any pleasure at all that the wicked should die?” says the Lord God, “and not that he should turn from his ways and live?" (Ezekiel 18:23)
"Say to them: ‘As I live,’ says the Lord God, ‘I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but that the wicked turn from his way and live. Turn, turn from your evil ways! For why should you die, O house of Israel?’" (Ezekiel 33:11)
"For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth." (1 Timothy 2:3-4)
"The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some count slackness, but is longsuffering toward us, not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance." (2 Peter 3:9)
Should we be satisfied with the common Calvinist answer to the two question above, that God created some whom He chose to elect and He also chose to create others whom He would condemn, and whom He chose for either group is a hidden mystery and there is nothing any can do to change their predetermined status as either one of the elect or one of the condemned? The answer is a resounding "no" because what was a mystery has been revealed. Verse 5 states the elect are predestined to adoption according to the good pleasure of His will. And verse 9 proceeds to confirm that the mystery of His will acccording to His good pleasure has been made known to us. And the subsequent verses in this chapter reveal that mystery. But the answer begins here in verse 5.
Verse 5 clearly states that He predestinated us. To what? To adoption. So to say that "He chose" is to ultimately state that the chosen, those "in Christ," will be adopted and that this brings Him good pleasure. Again, the question we need to investigate is this: 'Why did He choose to adopt these and condemn all others?" Does His good pleasure involve a random choice or a mysterious choice; or was it based upon His foreknowledge of how each individual responds to the gospel of Jesus? Those who respond in belief and trust in Christ bring Him good pleasure and this foreknowledge of each individual's response to Christ is the basis for His election. The mystery revealed in verses 9 through 12, is God's desire to gather together in Christ all those who receive Jesus, and these (those "in Christ") are His chosen people, and this selection was made before the foundation of the world; even God's decision to create the world was birthed out of His desire to save and adopt all who are willing to believe and trust in Christ. All have the God-given ability to repent and believe and these, those who are "in Christ," are those whom He elects and predestines.
Summary of 6-10: We are accepted in Jesus (Ephesians 1:6) and have redemption and forgiveness through His blood (Ephesians 1:7). In His wisdom (Ephesians 1:8) He has revealed the mystery of His will (Ephesians 1:9) and His purpose (Ephesians 1:9), which is to gather everything in Christ (Ephesians 1:10).
6 to the praise of the glory of His grace, by which He made us accepted in the Beloved. 7 In Him we have redemption through His blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of His grace 8 which He made to abound toward us in all wisdom and prudence, 9 having made known to us the mystery of His will, according to His good pleasure which He purposed in Himself, 10 that in the dispensation of the fullness of the times He might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven and which are on earth–in Him.
We are accepted! By His grace we have been placed in His Son! How will He make us accepted? In His beloved Son. Who will He make accepted? His chosen ones. Whom did He choose? Those He knew would believe and trust in Christ (verses 12 and 13).
We are forgiven! He forgives those in His Son! Whom did He place in His Son (who are those "in Christ" or "in Him")? Those who respond to the Gospel (those who with faith access His grace) and walk with Jesus. But we also see He knew we would confess our sins and forgive others. Otherwise, the conditions of 1 John 1:9 and Matthew 6:15 would not be satisfied. His promises are conditional; His election is of those He knows will fulfill the conditions. This is why the letter is addressed to the "saints" and the "faithful". Nowhere in scripture does it state that God cannot and does not use His foreknowledge to make decisions based upon all of what He knows, which clearly is better than making decisions on only partial knowledge.
How did He abound towards us, as stated in verse 8? By making known to us this mystery. What mystery? The mystery of His will. He grants to those He chooses knowledge of the mystery of His will. There is a mystery relating to His will which has been "made known to us." So what is this mystery of His will that has been revealed to us? It is expressly revealed in verses 11 through 13.
The revelation of the mystery of His will: He desires to gather together all "in Christ." But the gathering is in the fullness of time. For us, it is not yet.
Summary of 11-13: We have been predestined for a purpose (Ephesians 1:11) so that those who first trusted (Ephesians 1:12) and us who later heard and believed (Ephesians 1:12) should be to the praise of His glory (Ephesians 1:12).
11 In Him also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestined according to the purpose of Him who works all things according to the counsel of His will,
12 that we who first trusted in Christ should be to the praise of His glory.
13 In Him you also trusted, after you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation; in whom also, having believed, you were sealed with the Holy Spirit of promise,
We have been predestinated! On what basis? According to the purpose of Him and the counsel of His will. Again, it is expressly stated - God makes a purposeful predestination. Both our election and our destination, and both our appointment and our decree are according to His purpose. What is His purpose? Is it merely to randomly save some, but destroy others? No. God has a clear express purpose. He is shaping those whom He knows will believe and trust, that they will bring praise to the glory of God (verse 12). God reaches out with His love and knows those who respond in love to the love He poured out through His Son; these He elects and predestines. This is His perfect, miraculous, complete and purposeful plan of salvation, birthed before creation.
Verse 12 now provides the express revelation. We are being predestined according to the purpose of Him (verse 11). Why? What is His purpose? ("so that" ESV | "to the end that" NASB | "in order that" NIV) It is that we who first trusted in Christ should be to the praise of His glory (verse 12). Here it is. What is the purpose and object of predestiny? It is so that those who first trusted in Christ should bring praise to the glory of God. And per verse 13, it is for "us" who believe. This is the objective, so that those who believe and trust in Christ are those whom God chose and predestined; those whom God foreknew, He chose and predestined. We are, as stated in 1 Peter 1:2: elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father. This is the promise for those God foreknew as those whom will trust in Christ. And having believed, we are sealed with the Holy Spirit.
Indeed He did abound toward us in all wisdom and prudence; Having made known unto us the mystery of his will, according to his good pleasure which He purposed in Himself (Verses 8 and 9).
Verses 13 and 14: We having been sealed with the Holy Spirit to guarantee God's promise of redemption. What does it mean to be sealed?
13In Him you also trusted, after you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation; in whom also, having believed, you were sealed with the Holy Spirit of promise,
14 who is the guarantee of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession, to the praise of His glory.
Does this seal mean protection or authenticity?
A notary seal, wax seal, or embedded seal - all are used to authenticate and represent the message sender. Seals used to close a document were intended to indicate who the document was from and to veerify that the document has not been opened or tampered with. The document could not be opened or read without breaking the seal. And the seal was a distinct mark that evidenced it was an authentic document of the sender.
Matthew 27:66 reports that Pilate instructed the Roman soldiers to make the tomb secure, seal the stone and set guards. What was this seal? While the scriptures do not provide a clear answer, under Roman law a seal was wax, clay or lead with an imprinted official mark. In the case of the tomb, the seal evidenced the stone was placed as a barrier by the order of Pilate. The heavy stone was not the seal; rather the official imprinted mark was the seal.
1 Kings 21:8, Esther 3:12 and Esther 8:8 provide old testament examples of sealed documents. Again, the seal was an imprinted mark that meant the document was authentic; it was not a statement about the contents of the document. The recipient knew by the seal who wrote the document and if the seal was not broken, the document had not been modified. The seal had no bearing on whether the document included a promise with conditions or no conditions or whether the document brought good news or bad news. The contents of the document were and are thoroughly unrelated to the document seal.
In Esther 3:12 Haman received sealed letters from Xerxes, King of Persia, which directed the destruction of all Jews. Now under Persian law, anything written and sealed by the king could not be changed. But in Esther 8:8 we see a new order was issued by the king that permitted the Jews to defend themself. Again it was authenticated by the seal. The second letter did not void the first letter, but it certainly altered the application. The first letter was good news to Haman, but bad news to the Jews. The second letter was bad news to Haman, but good news to the Jews. The seals on these letters spoke nothing about the contents of the letters or the promises set forth in the letters.
Ephesians 4:30 states we are sealed until the day of redemption. We can be certain the promise remains valid through the day of redemption. But what is the promise? Is it conditional so that it is dependent upon our obedience or endurance? The fact that the promise is sealed does not have any bearing upon the nature of or conditions to the promise. What we have is a promise that the Holy Spirit dwelling within testifies to the authenticity of the promise of redemption made to those who believe. God will perform. The seal of the Holy Spirt assures us the promise is true. However, the seal of the Holy Spirit makes no comment whether the promise is conditional or unconditional. But it does give us the assurance His promise is authentic and reliable.